Would someone at the Tomkins Institute please explain how the Tomkins-Nathanson affect theory would conceptualize the calming effect (if, indeed, the theory believes it in fact occurs) presumably found in some episodes of profound, tearful crying--as in, say, intense expressions of remorse or of grief as part of mourning. Moreover, how would affect theory conceptualize a difference between the type of crying just described and crying that occurs as in, say, a painfully sudden awareness of a catastrophic personal loss, in which crying seems to intensify anguish rather than have a calming effect? Or does it have a calming effect at any time? Forgive my not using affect-theory terminology in asking my question. I'm just starting to learn the vocabulary for your elegant, precise, and very helpful approach.