I have a question. The risk of vicarious traumatization (admitted or denied or repressed) with exposure therapy seems quite high. Would this perhaps explain part of EMDR's popularlity -- for both clinicians and clients, as EMDR generally involves less detailed discussion of the trauma or aversion? After all, rapport will not be established or maintained in session if either party is afraid of the material. I have no opinion as to the efficacy of exposure vs EMDR, btw. My experience with exposure was the general, bastard stepchild hybrid sort that says "telling will help" without the structure and directiveness which seems to distinguish "true" exposure techniques. Telling, without structure and without direction, is not helpful... it is retraumatizing. Which is why I now work with an EMDR therapist where there is no imperative to "tell". My point is, does EMDR have popularity because it is less traumatizing and one needs a less strong stomach to use it effectively... irregardless of whether it or it's components (em's) are "more" effective in and of themselves? This question has been on my mind since a rereading of the Shapiro text last month, esp the sections on the reluctance of war veterans to "tell". Thanks.
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